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So gay!!!

Awww, yo gunna do fine, I'm sure. What state? Ya be knowin Clutch? He's in yo same shoes--he's in New York.
 
Good ole Utah of course.

Well, ya might be a little late for the fun, eh, Goat? From what I hears-tells, they aint gunna be no mo chance for one of your clients to git gunned down by a firin squad, eh? As his bottom-feeder, I spect ya could be there, if he was, ya know?
 
Tell it all to the guys at this here law school, eh, Kicky:?

That you would even pretend that website (which you incorrectly link to incidentally) supports your case is the height of absurdity.

The very top of the page lists standing as the first of the constitutional limitations.

The first subject discussed: standing.

The list of cases at the side group standing as the only issue under the heading of "case or controversy requirement."

The page is firmly on my side aint, not yours. Although to say you have a side is even to acknowledge there's a controversy. You're basically arguing that blue is orange.


Where ya say you gotcho legal schoolin again? Some candyass "law school," right?

Let's just say that your assertion that UMKC is somehow out of my league is laughable.
 
Kicky, you aint brangin up nuthin I aint already brung up my own damn self.

Hopper said:
The particular case discussed there (Poe v. Ullman, 1961) cites the Muskrat case and explicitly refers to "jurisdictional" questions, for example:

"The restriction of our jurisdiction to cases and controversies within the meaning of Article III of the Constitution, see Muskrat v. United States, 219 U.S. 346 , is not the sole limitation on the exercise of our appellate powers, especially in cases raising constitutional questions" https://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/cgi-bin/getcase.pl?court=US&vol=367&invol=497.

Perhaps "jurisdiction" for article 3 purposes is not best described as "subject matter juridiction," I dunno, but, whatever, it seems to be a matter of jurisdiction, not merely "standing."

Addendum: After looking at this Poe case a little closer, it seems that they are suggesting that the "actual controversy" limitation upon judicial review may not be so much "jurisdictional" in the strict sense as it is a self-imposed limitation for the sake of good jurisprudence:
 
By the way, Kicky, issues of "justiciability" are non-waivable, eh?

Issues of standing arising from the case and controversy requirement, if not raised at the trial level, are waived. It's a procedural default. In essence, by defending the case on the merits you have conceded that there is a case or controversy.

Standing issues can also be waived explicitly in a number of contexts, and Congress has explicitly done so on behalf of the government in several different instances such as environmental litigation under certain statutes.

Here's an example that's publicly available for you of a slip opinion where standing was waived through failure to bring it up at the lower level:

https://www.nycourts.gov/reporter/3dseries/2009/2009_05512.htm

Since the defendant Yat Yar Equities Corp. (hereinafter Yat Yar) did not raise the defense of lack of standing in a timely motion to dismiss the complaint or in its responsive pleading, that defense is waived (see CPLR 3211 [e]; Gager v White, 53 NY2d 475, 488 [1981], cert denied 454 US 1086 [1981]; Aames Funding Corp. v Houston, 57 AD3d 808, 809 [2008]).

That's typically how it would be handled.

Other justiciability issues are non-waivable. I gave examples in a previous post of both waivable and non-waivable issues.

But keep on trying to show I have "no basic competency."
 
Why are you citin NY cases when we've been talking all along about federal courts, I wonder? Like Goat done said, eh?:

Justiciability is a constitutional limit on whether a court can exercise its power over a case. A quick google search led me to this recent DC case:

https://caselaw.findlaw.com/us-dc-circuit/1023817.html

Note also that justiciability requirements are not required in all cases. The vast majority of court cases are held in state courts, and the case or controversy clause does not apply to state courts.

"Judge Ginsburg wrote the majority opinion...a court must decline to adjudicate a nonjusticiable claim even if the defendant does not move to dismiss it under FED. R. CIV. P. 12(b)(6). . . the nonjusticiability of a claim may not be waived..."
 
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Nice selective use of elipses aint.

I picked that case because it was the first one that came up in my google search and I wanted an example you could see. I assure you that it's representative.

The case GOAT cited isn't about waiving standing. It's about waiving the political question doctrine.

Read the full thing and you'll see the court is deciding on an SMJ motion and a motion for failure to state a claim.

The reference to "justiciability" is not about standing, or even about all justiciability claims generally, but about whether or not the court has the power of judicial review under the Administrative Procedure Act, which is a political question doctrine issue and the case text explicitly states as much.

You can't waive a political question. Whoop-de-damn do. That wasn't in dispute.

I already explicitly acknowledged you can't waive every justiciability issue and provided mootness as an example.

You can't even waive standing in all instances, I've acknowledged there's exceptions. Neither party can waive redressability for example. But you can certainly waive that the other side isn't an "adverse party" for standing purposes when you're talking about the case and controversy requirement. And that's where your original claim lay.

Keep on trying to score points when you've conceded all the other substance.
 
The case GOAT cited isn't about waiving standing. It's about waiving the political question doctrine.

The reference to "justiciability" is not about standing, or even about all justiciability claims generally

1. You're the one who wants to first put something in a "category," then let the category answer the question. The statement made pertains to "nonjusticiability" IN GENERAL, not to nonjusticiable POLITICAL QUESTIONS

2. The Federal district court said there was a lack of "subject matter jurisdiction," proving that, even amongst duly appointed judges these distinctions aren't always clear (they would only always be clear to you, a wet-behind-the-ears bottom-feeder with about 3 months experience, I spoze)

3. Even the appellate courts can't keep it straight, callin a "political question" limitation "jurisdictional: "We have not always been consistent in maintaining these distinctions.   See, e.g., Bancoult v. McNamara, 445 F.3d 427, 432 (D.C.Cir.2006) (treating the political question doctrine as jurisdictional)."

But you just keep actin like it all very simple, but only to you, not no federal judges, not no Supreme Court Justices, and not NOBUDDY except for your brilliant self, eh, Kicky?  
 
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"Generally, standing cannot be waived if based on constitutional requirements imposed by Article III. See United Food & Commercial Workers Union Local 751 v. Brown Group, Inc., 517 U.S. 544, 551 (1996). Constitutional standing requires at a minimum: "(1) an injury in fact[;] (2) a causal relationship between the injury and the challenged conduct[;] and 3) a likelihood that the injury will be redressed by a favorable decision."

https://www.universityofcalifornia.edu/news/acsi-stearns/ruling0808.pdf

Another ignorant federal judge citin yet another ignorant Supreme Court decision, right there, eh, Kicky?
 
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Of course all the subsequent paragraphs are about why standing could be waived in that instance. Once again, selectively quoting. And once again citing something in an entirely different context (in this instance, associational standing).

And here's your link to the Supreme Court case. It doesn't discuss waiver at all: https://ftp.resource.org/courts.gov/c/US/517/517.US.544.95-340.html .

It's at this point that I'm remembering why I had aint on ignore in the first place: no one wants to read this crap. Together we create board pollution.

I had to take him off when he was engaged in his two-week long whine about why things were so unfair for him, but now that appears to have ceased. He's going back on, for the good of the board and my sanity.
 
You can't waive a political question. Whoop-de-damn do. That wasn't in dispute.

I'm not familiar with this Latin phrase. In looking up more popular Latin phrases it is the only one that starts with the letter W...

I did find this one under V that I suspect you've heard quite often, probably starting at a young age and heard from your parents, "vade retro Satana". :p
 
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