I say the default position is that there is a difference and you must prove there isn't.First, that there is no difference is the default position. I'm not aware of any studies that have tested this directly.
There is some research that is tangentially relevant.
https://scholarship.law.duke.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1109&context=djglp
Among the conclusions (there is more detailed support in the body of the work):
https://psycnet.apa.org/journals/cou/34/2/186/
Clothing is absent from the list of risk factors.
https://irs.sagepub.com/content/39/4/373.short
How revealing the clothing of an athlete is has very little to do with the level of harassment.
I don't know what you are trying to argue, but I in no way have stated that harassment is mainly because of dress, I have stated that dress can affect harassment.
I have never once broached the subject of what the main motivation of harassment is, but have only stated more attention because of dress will increase the likelihood of some unwanted attention or harassment.
Your duke link supports my statements multiple times, but you seem intent to argue whatever it is you are arguing.
One of the referenced cases had this in it.
The plaintiff wore the uniform for two days and “received a number of sexual propositions and endured lewd comments and gestures. Humiliated by what occurred, [the plaintiff] was unable to perform her duties properly.” Eventually, the plaintiff was fired because she refused to wear the uniform.
Basically the woman was forced to wear a revealing "uniform" for her job and because of it was the recipient of what is described. Interestingly enough the woman stopped wearing the uniform in order to be free of this harassment. hmmmmmm
I've made my point, that's all.
You can continue arguing whatever it is you want with the wall, or some other poster or whomever you would like.
It's fairly obvious to me you want to proceed from my statements to argue the motivation of harassment and then reverse engineer it back to some statement of how clothing has absolutely nothing to do with harassment. That would be untrue, a small effect would still be something without being the main motivator.
If you want more, just look into the hooters cases, and keep in mind that your duke link mentions that changes in law and evidence for the most part do not allow evidence relating to the dress of the plaintiff in regards to the cases. It can be allowed and at times is referenced by the defense.
Also keep in mind, although I believe dress can change the odds of a harassment encounter I in no way place any sort of blame on the victim if such an encounter happens. Zero.
Carry on