It was a question about if a player's hand was hit causing the ball to go out of band, whether it'd be on the player or the hitter. I gave the answer by quoting the NBA official rule book. The official rule book says it'd be on the hitter. It does not say it would be a foul. It does not say it would be on the player who touched it last. I've seen this in dozens of NBA games. The question is settled.
1) if it was understood that Rondo had hit the hand of Milsap then I acquiesce. I missed that part of the explanation.
2) no. I say when things are settled, not unicorn petters.