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that foul on Rudy

colton

All Around Nice Guy
Contributor
I was shocked when Denver fouled Rudy before the ball was in play, towards the end of the game last night, because I thought that resulted in a technical foul. Yet no technical foul was called.

I thought maybe I misremembered the rule, or maybe they had changed it, so I did some searching and came across this: https://videorulebook.nba.com/archi...nded-defender-grabs-offensive-players-jersey/

The play was definitely in the last 2 minutes (0;46 remaining according to the ESPN game log), so I'm absolutely correct. The Jazz should have been awarded a technical free throw and gotten the ball back.

How could the refs have screwed up that badly? And how could the announcers not have commented on it? Why is no one else outraged? (Granted we won the game.) Or am I missing something? What gives?
 
This was during a free-throw shot by Denver, right? If so, then it isn't the same as being fouled on an in-bound play. The call was right, iirc
 
Saw this last night and thought it was strange too. But in a FT situation when does the ball become 'live'? Is it as soon as the ball leaves the hand of the FT shooter? Or when it hits the rim?
 
This was during a free-throw shot by Denver, right? If so, then it isn't the same as being fouled on an in-bound play. The call was right, iirc

Denver made the free throw, so it immediately became an in-bound play the second the ball went through the hoop. Wasn't Gobert fouled directly after the free throw went in? Or are you saying he was fouled right before it went in? I guess I'm not sure.
 
Denver made the free throw, so it immediately became an in-bound play the second the ball went through the hoop. Wasn't Gobert fouled directly after the free throw went in? Or are you saying he was fouled right before it went in? I guess I'm not sure.

wasn't he fouled as the free throw was in the air? This same thing happened in another game a few days ago. Same call was made.
 
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