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Pats Possibly Caught Cheating...Again

Arnold Schwarzenegger has a speech where he says one of the keys to success is "breaking the rules, you cannot be a maverick or true original without breaking the rules. I have never been successful in life unless I broke some rules" I hate it when I study my *** off for a test and get a B but someone else gets an A because they have access to last years test and studied 1/5th the amount of time I have.
 
Why the **** do the two teams use separate football's? Seems that the nfl was just asking for a team to do something like this.

I can understand each team having thier own football's on the sideline to warm up with and stuff, but the ball that is being used on the field should be from one group of football's that both teams use.
Seems like common sense

This.

I'd also just add I'm not sure how you prove Belichick or anyone else knew this was going on. The ball boy or whatever he's called could've just done this on his own accord.
 
This.

I'd also just add I'm not sure how you prove Belichick or anyone else knew this was going on. The ball boy or whatever he's called could've just done this on his own accord.

Possibly. But there are ways. The ball boys confesion, is there anything in print (email, text, memos...)? Security cameras...
 
I would give them the hammer. They already got cheating for Spygate and they have the same leadership so the fine should be harder because this isn't their first offense.
 
They (the pats) could have been using bowling balls against the Colts in the afc championship game and they still would have won fwiw.
I think deflation of the ball mostly helps the passing game (specifically the qb gripping the ball)
Lagarrett blount ran the ball down indys throat iirc.

Having said that, there does need to be a harsh penalty if it is found that they definitely knowingly and intentionally deflated the balls
 
2Lbs of pressure in a rainy environment is quite a huge advantage...


Respectfully, this feels like talking out of your ***.

How would we even measure that? Is there some number of average points per pound of square inch deflation we can attribute to the change?

Another question that occurs to me: Don't the referees touch the ball all the time? Like every single play? If this is a huge difference in how the ball feels and behaves why didn't the refs, who presumably have been regularly handling footballs for a large portion of their lives, notice?
 
They (the pats) could have been using bowling balls against the Colts in the afc championship game and they still would have won fwiw.
I think deflation of the ball mostly helps the passing game (specifically the qb gripping the ball)
Lagarrett blount ran the ball down indys throat iirc.

Having said that, there does need to be a harsh penalty if it is found that they definitely knowingly and intentionally deflated the balls

It's already been found out dawg.
 
Respectfully, this feels like talking out of your ***.

How would we even measure that? Is there some number of average points per pound of square inch deflation we can attribute to the change?

Another question that occurs to me: Don't the referees touch the ball all the time? Like every single play? If this is a huge difference in how the ball feels and behaves why didn't the refs, who presumably have been regularly handling footballs for a large portion of their lives, notice?

I'm assuming there is some advantage if they went to the trouble to do it.
 
I'm assuming there is some advantage if they went to the trouble to do it.

Or they subjectively believe there is some advantage.

Where I'm saying that David Stern is talking out of his *** is when he qualifies that advantage as "huge." How does he know? Is there any way to say what the net effect of the advantage is either in this particular game or on average? If it turned out that the actual difference over the course of a full game of underinflated footballs was the equivalent of 1.3 points, or roughly the difference between kicking a field goal from the 15 yard line vs. going for it on fourth and one, then what are we really talking about? Is that a "huge" advantage?
 
Or they subjectively believe there is some advantage.

Where I'm saying that David Stern is talking out of his *** is when he qualifies that advantage as "huge." How does he know? Is there any way to say what the net effect of the advantage is either in this particular game or on average? If it turned out that the actual difference over the course of a full game of underinflated footballs was the equivalent of 1.3 points, or roughly the difference between kicking a field goal from the 15 yard line vs. going for it on fourth and one, then what are we really talking about? Is that a "huge" advantage?

Perhaps he is talking out his butt. Personally in such cold weather I'd label it as a moderate advantage in the passing game. This would be due to the toughness of the ball and how that affects a persons ability to throw and catch the ball.

But it is the principal, idiotic rule or not. If it is found out that this was intentional and the Pats clearly cheated, again, then it is in the interest of the league, their image, and the fairness of games to level a harsh penalty. This was also done in the AFC Championship game with the Superbowl on the line.
 
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