As far as I know, assassination-byu-bombing is not a violation of the Geneva convention/international law.
What we have been told is that when the chopper put them men in a fire fight broke out.... So the Seals were already in active combat. They go to the 3rd floor of this mansion (place looks like a ******* dump to me) and bust down the door... 1st thing that happens is that some woman is either thrown towards the Seals or charges them. I imagine the Seals broke the door down and neutralized the threats, including Osama whom I am sure wasn't on his chest with his hands behind his head.
Log (whom I respect a ton and Dutch- who is an idiot) are arguing based on pure "what if's" and speculation. I take the Seal's word on what happened.
Also, Beantown asked good question... If we had a sniper with a .50 cal half a mile away and he glimpses Osama fondling a young man in the courtyard, should he take the shot? Or is that unethical because he doesn't have an AK in his hand and a RPG strapped across his back?
Those laws were written a long time ago to enforce rules in wars that were nothing like what we are engaged in right now.
We tried to fight Bin Laden's army in a traditional war but he chose to do it this way. And this was a typical battlefield in this non traditional war.
It's pretty funny that clowns keep insinuating that killing a bunch of innocent women, children, and civilians would have been preferable to this.
And you may not realize that you are insinuating this, but you are. Follow me here...
You are saying that it would have been totally okay to drop a big *** bomb (or several) and destroy that whole compound, killing everyone in it. Even though there were several women and children there (who did not get killed with this surgical strike) and it would have probably killed some neighboring civilians. This would have been totally fine with you and totally legal under the Geneva Convention rules. Even though Bin Laden wouldn't have been shooting at the person who launched the missile, and may not have even been armed when the strike occurred, it would have been totally fine to kill him and everyone else with a missile strike.
You are saying that it may not have been okay to send in a team and just kill Bin Laden. Even though we know they were taking fire from at least some of the people there, killing Bin Laden may have been wrong because maybe he himself wasn't shooting.
I'm of the opinion that throwing a hand grenade in an enemy foxhole in the middle of a battle is okay. Even though there is a chance you will kill someone that isn't shooting at you, it's still okay.
This was a battle. This was not a World War 2 type of battle, and Al Queda was not a World War 2 type of army. But it was still a battle in a long war.
And to answer your question, I already said I would have preferred they capture Bin Laden and then put him on a nationwide parade with everyone getting a free shot. Short of that, I have no problem with them shooting him in the head and I would have loved to be the guy to do it.
Does anyone know if throwing planes into a metropolis and killing 3000 people is against the Geneva convention?
Actually it is. Pre-emeptive strikes against a purely civilian population with no military presence or military goal for the strike (infrastructure, for example) is against the geneva convention as I understand it. This was partly included to attempt to preclude nuclear strikes such as those in Japan, even though both Nagasaki and Hiroshima were industrial cities supporting the war effort in varying degrees, there was no real military presence there.
Common Article 2 relating to International Armed Conflicts
This article states that the Geneva Conventions apply to all cases of international conflict, where at least one of the warring nations have ratified the Conventions. Primarily:
The Conventions apply to all cases of declared war between signatory nations. This is the original sense of applicability, which predates the 1949 version.
The Conventions apply to all cases of armed conflict between two or more signatory nations, even in the absence of a declaration of war. This language was added in 1949 to accommodate situations that have all the characteristics of war without the existence of a formal declaration of war, such as a police action.
The Conventions apply to a signatory nation even if the opposing nation is not a signatory, but only if the opposing nation "accepts and applies the provisions" of the Conventions.
Article 1 of Protocol I further clarifies that armed conflict against colonial domination and foreign occupation also qualifies as an international conflict.
When the criteria of international conflict have been met, the full protections of the Conventions are considered to apply.
This discussion aroused my curiosity about specifics of the Geneva Conventions, so I read up a bit and am now less sure about their application in this instance.
I am certainly nowhere as smart as One Brow or LogGrad, so there is probably quite a bit lacking in my interpretation, and to be honest, the four conventions and their accompanying protocols make for a lengthy and somewhat dry read. I found the following summary in wikipedia (take that for what it's worth, but wikipedia was not my primary source. I accessed the GC here: https://www.icrc.org/ihl.nsf/CONVPRES?OpenView).
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geneva_Conventions
The questions this raises with me are, does the "war" on Al Qaeda qualify as an international armed conflict? Al Qaeda can hardly be considered a "nation". If it isn't, do the Geneva Conventions apply? If they do, is mutual compliance necessary?
I am asking this as a complete aside from any moral question that may arise from the action on OBL. And if someone feels they can enlighten me, they have my attention. I am more than willing to learn where I can. So forgive my ignorance, please.