All of those versions, they have the same gospel message, correct?
If I seem to be departing from "explaining my beliefs" into "attacking your beliefs", I apologize.
That being said, I don't understand your position. First you say that the Bible is flawless, perfect, and inerrant, but then you apparently readily agree with me that it's the *message* that's important and not the specific words.
If it's the message that's important, than your previous complaint about the Book of Mormon doesn't seem valid, since it contains the same message of the divinity of Jesus Christ, his atonement for our sins, etc., as the Bible.
Even when checking the Bible's current translation with what was discovered in the Dead Sea Scrolls, there were only a minor fraction of differences, and they were all minor words that did not change any message in the Bible!
I agree that the basic message is not changed, but as the saying goes "the devil is in the details". And a LOT of the details vary from version to version. kicky did a good job responding to that. His point about the "the most honest translations currently published are heavily footnoted" is 100% accurate (and mirrors something I said in a post above). And his point about the Aprocrypha is equally valid. Do you accept the Aprocrypha as inerrant scripture? Why/why not?
As for Psalms, again, God-breathed words. Do you think God knew what was going to be in the Bible in the future? He is all-knowing after all.
If the Psalms' passage allows for additional scripture beyond Psalms, then it allows for additional scripture. By that logic it does not argue against the Book of Mormon at all. I.e. God could similarly have been implying that the Book of Mormon is included in the phrase "The words of The Lord are flawless"? After all the Psalm does NOT state, "The words of the Lord, meaning only these specific books [insert list of books here], are flawless." That's only YOUR interpretation of that verse. The verse itself makes no such claim.