I didn't deny that the phenomenon exists regarding murders. I said it was considered rude to direct such comments to the people affected by the tragedy in murders, but not with rape. Almost no one goes up to the grieving spouse and says "he should have worn a helmet". Rape victims and their supporters constantly tell of stories about people saying they should not have been drinking, etc.
Are you saying you think the frequency is equal, or that frequency doesn't indicate cutural attitudes? Are you asking if there are studies on the frequenciy of victim-blaming? Should I do antoher search, and find such studies, does that prove the point, or are there more loaded examples waiting in the wings?
I'd offer to help you off that horse if I could reach that high.
Yes, I'm saying the frequency of victim-blaming is equal. I'm saying I think you're incorrect in your assessment. Your verbiage is quite absolute in its nature, which is, I think, part of my issue with your arguments here.
I consider it rude to comment to people in such a manner in the case of murder OR with rape. I am aware of situations, however, where both have occurred. I am curious what your basis is for being able to confidently state that one is culturally acceptable while the other is not.