PearlWatson
Well-Known Member
For the same reason it would be good for one state to call interracial unions marriage, and bad for another state to reject calling interracial unions marriage. In our culture, we accept that there are individual rights, and that among these is the right to participate in state-recognized institutions such as marriage. The will of the majority is not considered sufficient, in and of itself, to abridge those rights.
You missed the point of the question. Homosexuals accept the right of one state to have a vote on whether calling homosexual unions marriage because the vote went their way, but don't accept the right of another state to have the same vote because it didn't go their way. Do states have a right to hold a vote on redefining state-recognized institutions or don't they?
There has been no such "right" in the history of country. How did there suddenly become a "right" to call your particular type of union marriage?
A constitution is not allowed to contradict itself.
What is the contradiction in this case?
Those 9 appointees are the people's method of protecting the rights of the individual against the tyranny of the majority, among other things.
Your argument talked nothing of rights or tyranny, and thus your response has no relevance to my question.
You said: To exclude gay couples from this designation is to, culturally, exclude them from the status of being fully approved. It should not be the role of government to decide which legal couplings are considered culturally approved.
So again I ask: Why is it acceptable for 9 government appointed people to overrule what 100's of thousands of citizens find culturally acceptable if that shouldn't be the role of government?