Just about every paragraph written near that time in the USA on black people says the opposite.
I do. I don't see how that invalidates the prevalence of white supremacy in the US.
The reasons they were slaves instead of indentured servants is racial.
How many white slaves were there in 1800, or 1810? We couldn't buy any from the European nations that were fighting wars with each other? We didn't even try?
I'm not so dishonest I'm claiming slavery was race-blind or not based on notions of racial superiority.