As with all things related to the Constitution: that's not really black and white in meaning.
Does that mean that the methods by which interstate commerce is conducted are regulatable? (Generally yes)
Does that mean Congress can regulate persons and things that travel through interstate commerce? (Generally yes)
Does that mean Congress can regulate activities which substantially affect interstate commerce? (Generally yes, through the necessary and proper clause because otherwise the power would be functionally meaningless)
It's just not that simple. The type of legal trashing advocated by the Tea Party and their ilk is a true "baby out with the bathwater" solution with no understanding of why things came about to be the way they are.
It has limits. Those limits have been pretty clearly elucidated via Lopez and Morrison.
Here's the reality: The Tea Party doesn't love the Constitution as it's been understood for most of America's history. What they want is the Articles of Confederation where the central government is weak, states do whatever they feel like, and it's impossible for the federal government to fund itself. We've seen both how that worked out as a practical matter and what the founding fathers, who the Tea Partiers revere cartoons of, did about it.
Clearly elucidated? Hardly.
LOPEZ: Judge Garwood made clear that
if Congress had simply mentioned interstate commerce, there would have been no question as to the Act's constitutionality...But for the incredible sloppiness of Congress's bill drafting and Judge Garwood's willingness to take advantage of it, this exciting event would not have occurred.
MORRISON: The Violence Against Women Act similarly regulated conduct that was non-economic, had no express jurisdictional element (in that it applied to all gender-motivated violence against women), and had an attenuated connection with interstate commerce. Surely the most significant aspect of Morrison, distinguishing it from Lopez, was that this time Congress played the game of pretending to be concerned with interstate commerce. Congress held extensive hearings about the effects of gender-motivated violence against women on interstate commerce and found that such violence affects interstate commerce "by deterring potential victims from traveling interstate, from engaging in employment in interstate business.... diminishing national productivity, increasing medical and other costs, and decreasing the supply of and demand for interstate products." (88) These findings did not save the statute, however, because the asserted effects were too "attenuated." (89) Were such findings--of diminishing national productivity, for example--accepted as sufficient, Chief Justice Rehnquist pointed out, Congress could "regulate any crime" so long as the nationwide, aggregated impact of that crime has substantial effects on "employment, production, transit, or consumption." (90) Congress would even be able to regulate family law and other areas of traditional state regulation. (91)
https://www.thefreelibrary.com/Lope...federalism+in+the+Rehnquist+Court-a0179033117
Here's the reality: Liberals don't love the constitution as it was intended. They have sapped its foundations little by little so that anything that congress wants to do is acceptable by precedent (<---one judge got away with it in the past). "To reinterpret the constitution to mirror our devolving society corrupts the document and it ceases to be one."
Thomas Jefferson said:
On every question of construction, carry yourself back to the time when the constitution was adopted, recollect the spirit manifested in the debates, and instead of trying what meaning may be squeezed out of the text, or invented against it, conform to the probable one in which it was past.
What was the founders' purpose for including the commerce clause? I'm sure it was never intended as a tool to force individuals to buy a specific product, but to overcome obstacles to free trade between states.